[ee122] HW1: 2b clarification

Jorge Ortiz jortiz at cs.berkeley.edu
Tue Sep 18 22:42:22 PDT 2007


No, it does not.

On 9/18/07, Merry Choi <merry_c at berkeley.edu> wrote:
> Sorry to be beating a dead horse, but one last clarification.
>
> So this 'one-way delay' does NOT need to be added to the transmission delay
> we calculate for each packet?
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: ee122-bounces at ICSI.Berkeley.EDU
> [mailto:ee122-bounces at ICSI.Berkeley.EDU] On Behalf Of Jorge Ortiz
> Sent: Tuesday, September 18, 2007 9:33 PM
> To: Simon Tan
> Cc: EE 122 Mailing List
> Subject: Re: [ee122] HW1: 2b clarification
>
> On 9/18/07, Simon Tan <simtan at berkeley.edu> wrote:
> > Hi,
> >
> > I was under the impression that a 'one-way delay' included transmission
> > delay (as well as processing, queuing, and propagating delays) in one
> > compact, convenient number for our calculations. At least, that is the
> > definition I find by searching and asking around.
>
> It includes processing, queuing, and propagation delay, but there is
> still a transmission delay that's dependent on the available bandwidth
> which you should take into account.
>
> >
> > If the '40 ms' that was referenced only applies to RTT (which, I also
> > presumed, was round-trip time, the sum of two one-way delays and
> > neglecting the factor of 'response time'), then I would have to calculate
> > some other number to multiply by my number of packets, wouldn't I?
>
> Yes (as I hinted above).
>
> >
> > What of part (c) of the question - it is using RTT again, so do we go back
> > to  basing the answer on '40ms'?
>
> Yes.
>
> >
> > Thanks for any clarification of "one-way delay", "RTT", and "time to
> > transmit" you can provide.
>
> I hope that cleared it up some of the confusion.  If you have more
> specific questions, feel free to drop by my office hours tomorrow from
> 1-2pm.
>
> Jorge
>
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> > On Tue, 18 Sep 2007 07:41:24 -0700, Jorge Ortiz <jortiz at cs.berkeley.edu>
> > wrote:
> >
> > > Just apply it to the RTT.
> > >
> > > jorge
> > >
> > > On 9/18/07, Merry Choi <merry_c at berkeley.edu> wrote:
> > >> Some further clarification about the definition of 40ms delay.
> > >>
> > >> Does this mean, say if, a packet could theoretically be sent in 15ms in
> > >> the
> > >> given bandwidth, it would take 40ms for it to actually send? Or rather,
> > >> this
> > >> delay is only applicable to the calculation for the RTT.
> > >>
> > >>
> > >> --Merry
> > >>
> > >>
> > >> -----Original Message-----
> > >> From: ee122-bounces at ICSI.Berkeley.EDU
> > >> [mailto:ee122-bounces at ICSI.Berkeley.EDU] On Behalf Of Jorge Ortiz
> > >> Sent: Monday, September 17, 2007 8:04 AM
> > >> To: sylvainla at berkeley.edu
> > >> Cc: ee122 at ICSI.Berkeley.EDU
> > >> Subject: Re: [ee122] HW1: 2b clarification
> > >>
> > >> On 9/17/07, Sylvain La <sylvainla at berkeley.edu> wrote:
> > >> > In Homework 2, part b, the question states that we wait an RTT after
> > >> > transmitting a packet. Does this mean we wait the RTT (about 80 ms)
> > >> > immediately after sending out the last bit of a packet, or do we wait
> > >> until
> > >> > a packet is received on the other end before waiting an RTT (about
> > >> 120 ms)
> > >> ?
> > >>
> > >> After you're done acually
> > >> If you start counting your wait time after you have received an
> > >> acknowledgement, how long have do you actually wait?
> > >>
> > >> >
> > >> > -Sylvain
> > >> >
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> > >> >
> > >> >
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> > >>
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> >
> >
> >
> > --
> > ~Simon Tan >> undergraduate at UC Berkeley
> > Source: simtan at berkeley.edu
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